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Reply. The answer is No, because "lordly" is said denominatively
and by participation from Lord. But the name "Christ" stands for
the person of the Son of God who is essentially the Lord, and not
lordly by participation.
Hence it would be absolutely contrary to custom to conclude the
liturgical orations by saying: "through Christ the lordly man", and
not: "through Christ our Lord." Hence the expression that was in
use among certain seventeenth-century authors in France is not
entirely to be approved; namely, "Jesus is the perfect religious of
His Father." It cannot properly and truly be said that He who is
the very Lord is a lordly man.
Reply to third objection. Nevertheless we generally speak of the
divine Word, the divine person, because the adjective "divine" is
wont to be predicated of God's nature, which is called the divine
nature and not merely as being a participation of this nature.
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