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Objection 1: It would seem that grace was given in the baptism of
John. For it is written (Mk. 1:4): "John was in the desert
baptizing and preaching the baptism of penance unto remission of
sins." But penance and remission of sins are the effect of grace.
Therefore the baptism of John conferred grace.
Objection 2: Further, those who were about to be baptized by John
"confessed their sins," as related Mt. 3:6 and Mk. 1:5.
But the confession of sins is ordered to their remission, which is
effected by grace. Therefore grace was conferred in the baptism of
John.
Objection 3: Further, the baptism of John was more akin than
circumcision to the baptism of Christ. But original sin was remitted
through circumcision: because, as Bede says (Hom. x in
Circumcis.), "under the Law, circumcision brought the same saving
aid to heal the wound of original sin as baptism is wont to bring now
that grace is revealed." Much more, therefore, did the baptism of
John effect the remission of sins, which cannot be accomplished
without grace.
On the contrary, It is written (Mt. 3:11): "I indeed
baptize you in water unto penance." Which words Gregory thus
expounds in a certain homily (Hom. vii in Evang.): "John
baptized, not in the Spirit, but in water: because he could not
forgive sins." But grace is given by the Holy Ghost, and by means
thereof sins are taken away. Therefore the baptism of John did not
confer grace.
I answer that, As stated above (Article 2, ad 2), the whole
teaching and work of John was in preparation for Christ: just as it
is the duty of the servant and of the under-craftsman to prepare the
matter for the form which is accomplished by the head-craftsman. Now
grace was to be conferred on men through Christ, according to Jn.
1:17: "Grace and truth came through Jesus Christ." Therefore
the baptism of John did not confer grace, but only prepared the way
for grace; and this in three ways: first, by John's teaching,
which led men to faith in Christ; secondly, by accustoming men to the
rite of Christ's baptism; thirdly, by penance, preparing men to
receive the effect of Christ's baptism.
Reply to Objection 1: In these words, as Bede says (on Mk.
1:4), a twofold baptism of penance may be understood. one is that
which John conferred by baptizing, which is called "a baptism of
penance," etc., by reason of its inducing men to do penance, and of
its being a kind of protestation by which men avowed their purpose of
doing penance. The other is the baptism of Christ, by which sins are
remitted, and which John could not give, but only preach, saying:
"He will baptize you in the Holy Ghost."
Or it may be said that he preached the "baptism of penance," i.e.
which induced men to do penance, which penance leads men on to "the
remission of sins."
Or again, it may be said with Jerome that "by the baptism of Christ
grace is given, by which sins are remitted gratis; and that what is
accomplished by the bridegroom is begun by the bridesman," i.e. by
John. Consequently it is said that "he baptized and preached the
baptism of penance unto remission of sins," not as though he
accomplished this himself, but because he began it by preparing the way
for it.
Reply to Objection 2: That confession of sins was not made unto the
remission of sins, to be realized immediately through the baptism of
John, but to be obtained through subsequent penance and through the
baptism of Christ, for which that penance was a preparation.
Reply to Objection 3: Circumcision was instituted as a remedy for
original sin. Whereas the baptism of John was not instituted for this
purpose, but was merely in preparation for the baptism of Christ, as
stated above; whereas the sacraments attain their effect through the
force of their institution.
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