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Objection 1: It would seem that spiritual relationship does not pass
from husband to wife. For spiritual and bodily union are disparate and
differ generically. Therefore carnal union which is between husband
and wife cannot be the means of contracting a spiritual relationship.
Objection 2: Further, the godfather and godmother have more in
common in the spiritual birth that is the cause of spiritual
relationship, than a husband, who is godfather, has with his wife.
Now godfather and godmother do not hereby contract spiritual
relationship. Therefore neither does a wife contract a spiritual
relationship through her husband being godfather to someone.
Objection 3: Further, it may happen that the husband is baptized,
and his wife not, for instance when he is converted from unbelief
without his wife being converted. Now spiritual relationship cannot be
contracted by one who is not baptized. Therefore it does not always
pass from husband to wife.
Objection 4: Further, husband and wife together can raise a person
from the sacred font, since no law forbids it. If therefore spiritual
relationship passed from husband to wife, it would follow that each of
them is twice godfather or godmother of the same individual: which is
absurd.
On the contrary, Spiritual goods are more communicable than bodily
goods. But the bodily consanguinity of the husband passes to his wife
by affinity. Much more therefore does spiritual relationship.
I answer that, A may become co-parent with B in two ways. First,
by the act of another (B), who baptizes A's child, or raises him
in Baptism. In this way spiritual relationship does not pass from
husband to wife, unless perchance it be his wife's child, for then
she contracts spiritual relationship directly, even as her husband.
Secondly, by his own act, for instance when he raises B's child
from the sacred font, and thus spiritual relationship passes to the
wife if he has already had carnal knowledge of her, but not if the
marriage be not yet consummated, since they are not as yet made one
flesh: and this is by way of a kind of affinity; wherefore it would
seem on the same grounds to pass to a woman of whom he has carnal
knowledge, though she be not his wife. Hence the verse: "I may not
marry my own child's godmother, nor the mother of my godchild: but I
may marry the godmother of my wife's child."
Reply to Objection 1: From the fact that corporal and spiritual
union differ generically we may conclude that the one is not the other,
but not that the one cannot cause the other, since things of different
genera sometimes cause one another either directly or indirectly.
Reply to Objection 2: The godfather and godmother of the same
person are not united in that person's spiritual birth save
accidentally, since one of them would be self-sufficient for the
purpose. Hence it does not follow from this that any spiritual
relationship results between them whereby they are hindered from
marrying one another. Hence the verse:
"Of two co-parents one is always spiritual, the other carnal: this
rule is infallible."
On the other hand, marriage by itself makes husband and wife one
flesh: wherefore the comparison fails.
Reply to Objection 3: If the wife be not baptized, the spiritual
relationship will not reach her, because she is not a fit subject, and
not because spiritual relationship cannot pass from husband to wife
through marriage.
Reply to Objection 4: Since no spiritual relationship results
between godfather and godmother, nothing prevents husband and wife from
raising together someone from the sacred font. Nor is it absurd that
the wife become twice godmother of the same person from different
causes, just as it is possible for her to be connected in carnal
relationship both by affinity and consanguinity to the same person.
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