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Objection 1: It would seem that Christ alone should have been
baptized with the baptism of John. For, as stated above (Article
1), "the reason why John baptized was that Christ might receive
baptism," as Augustine says (Super Joan., Tract. xiii). But
what is proper to Christ should not be applicable to others.
Therefore no others should have received that baptism.
Objection 2: Further, whoever is baptized either receives something
from the baptism or confers something on the baptism. But no one could
receive anything from the baptism of John, because thereby grace was
not conferred, as stated above (Article 3). On the other hand,
no one could confer anything on baptism save Christ, who "sanctified
the waters by the touch of His most pure flesh" [Mag. Sent. iv,
3]. Therefore it seems that Christ alone should have been baptized
with the baptism of John.
Objection 3: Further, if others were baptized with that baptism,
this was only in order that they might be prepared for the baptism of
Christ: and thus it would seem fitting that the baptism of John
should be conferred on all, old and young, Gentile and Jew, just as
the baptism of Christ. But we do not read that either children or
Gentiles were baptized by the latter; for it is written (Mk.
1:5) that "there went out to him . . . all they of Jerusalem,
and were baptized by him." Therefore it seems that Christ alone
should have been baptized by John.
On the contrary, It is written (Lk. 3:21): "It came to
pass, when all the people were baptized, that Jesus also being
baptized and praying, heaven was opened."
I answer that, For two reasons it behooved others besides Christ to
be baptized with the baptism of John. First, as Augustine says
(Super Joan., Tract. iv, v), "if Christ alone had been
baptized with the baptism of John, some would have said that John's
baptism, with which Christ was baptized, was more excellent than that
of Christ, with which others are baptized."
Secondly, because, as above stated, it behooved others to be
prepared by John's baptism for the baptism of Christ.
Reply to Objection 1: The baptism of John was instituted not only
that Christ might be baptized, but also for other reasons, as stated
above (Article 1). And yet, even if it were instituted merely in
order that Christ might be baptized therewith, it was still necessary
for others to receive this baptism, in order to avoid the objection
mentioned above.
Reply to Objection 2: Others who approached to be baptized by John
could not, indeed, confer anything on his baptism: yet neither did
they receive anything therefrom, save only the sign of penance.
Reply to Objection 3: This was the baptism of "penance," for
which children were not suited; wherefore they were not baptized
therewith. But to bring the nations into the way of salvation was
reserved to Christ alone, who is the "expectation of the nations,"
as we read Gn. 49:10. Indeed, Christ forbade the apostles to
preach the Gospel to the Gentiles before His Passion and
Resurrection. Much less fitting, therefore, was it for the
Gentiles to be baptized by John.
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