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Objection 1: It would seem that there was hope in Christ. For it
is said in the Person of Christ (Ps. 30:1): "In Thee, O
Lord, have I hoped." But the virtue of hope is that whereby a man
hopes in God. Therefore the virtue of hope was in Christ.
Objection 2: Further, hope is the expectation of the bliss to
come, as was shown above (SS, Question 17, Article 5, ad
3). But Christ awaited something pertaining to bliss, viz. the
glorifying of His body. Therefore it seems there was hope in Him.
Objection 3: Further, everyone may hope for what pertains to his
perfection, if it has yet to come. But there was something still to
come pertaining to Christ's perfection, according to Eph.
4:12: "For the perfecting of the saints, for the work of the
ministry, for the building up of the body of Christ." Hence it
seems that it befitted Christ to have hope.
On the contrary, It is written (Rm. 8:24): "What a man
seeth, why doth he hope for?" Thus it is clear that as faith is of
the unseen, so also is hope. But there was no faith in Christ, as
was said above (Article 1): neither, consequently, was there
hope.
I answer that, As it is of the nature of faith that one assents to
what one sees not, so is it of the nature of hope that one expects what
as yet one has not; and as faith, forasmuch as it is a theological
virtue, does not regard everything unseen, but only God; so likewise
hope, as a theological virtue, has God Himself for its object, the
fruition of Whom man chiefly expects by the virtue of hope; yet, in
consequence, whoever has the virtue of hope may expect the Divine aid
in other things, even as he who has the virtue of faith believes God
not only in Divine things, but even in whatsoever is divinely
revealed. Now from the beginning of His conception Christ had the
Divine fruition fully, as will be shown (Question 34, Article
4), and hence he had not the virtue of hope. Nevertheless He had
hope as regards such things as He did not yet possess, although He
had not faith with regard to anything; because, although He knew all
things fully, wherefore faith was altogether wanting to Him,
nevertheless He did not as yet fully possess all that pertained to His
perfection, viz. immortality and glory of the body, which He could
hope for.
Reply to Objection 1: This is said of Christ with reference to
hope, not as a theological virtue, but inasmuch as He hoped for some
other things not yet possessed, as was said above.
Reply to Objection 2: The glory of the body does not pertain to
beatitude as being that in which beatitude principally consists, but by
a certain outpouring from the soul's glory, as was said above (FS,
Question 4, Article 6). Hence hope, as a theological virtue,
does not regard the bliss of the body but the soul's bliss, which
consists in the Divine fruition.
Reply to Objection 3: The building up of the church by the
conversion of the faithful does not pertain to the perfection of
Christ, whereby He is perfect in Himself, but inasmuch as it leads
others to a share of His perfection. And because hope properly
regards what is expected by him who hopes, the virtue of hope cannot
properly be said to be in Christ, because of the aforesaid reason.
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