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Objection 1: It would seem that incontinence is not a sin. For as
Augustine says (De Lib. Arb. iii, 18): "No man sins in
what he cannot avoid." Now no man can by himself avoid incontinence,
according to Wis. 8:21, "I know that I could not . . . be
continent, except God gave it." Therefore incontinence is not a
sin.
Objection 2: Further, apparently every sin originates in the
reason. But the judgment of reason is overcome in the incontinent
man. Therefore incontinence is not a sin.
Objection 3: Further, no one sins in loving God vehemently. Now
a man becomes incontinent through the vehemence of divine love: for
Dionysius says (Div. Nom. iv) that "Paul, through incontinence
of divine love, exclaimed: I live, now not I" (Gal.
2:20). Therefore incontinence is not a sin.
On the contrary, It is numbered together with other sins (2 Tim.
3:3) where it is written: "Slanderers, incontinent,
unmerciful," etc. Therefore incontinence is a sin.
I answer that, Incontinence about a matter may be considered in two
ways. First it may be considered properly and simply: and thus
incontinence is about concupiscences of pleasures of touch, even as
intemperance is, as we have said in reference to continence (Question
155, Article 2). In this way incontinence is a sin for two
reasons: first, because the incontinent man goes astray from that
which is in accord with reason; secondly, because he plunges into
shameful pleasures. Hence the Philosopher says (Ethic. vii, 4)
that "incontinence is censurable not only because it is
wrong"---that is, by straying from reason---"but also because
it is wicked"---that is, by following evil desires. Secondly,
incontinence about a matter is considered, properly---inasmuch as it
is a straying from reason---but not simply; for instance when a man
does not observe the mode of reason in his desire for honor, riches,
and so forth, which seem to be good in themselves. About such things
there is incontinence, not simply but relatively, even as we have said
above in reference to continence (Question 155, Article 2, ad
3). In this way incontinence is a sin, not from the fact that one
gives way to wicked desires, but because one fails to observe the mode
of reason even in the desire for things that are of themselves
desirable.
Thirdly, incontinence is said to be about a matter, not properly,
but metaphorically. for instance about the desires for things of which
one cannot make an evil use, such as the desire for virtue. A man may
be said to be incontinent in these matters metaphorically, because just
as the incontinent man is entirely led by his evil desire, even so is a
man entirely led by his good desire which is in accord with reason.
Such like incontinence is no sin, but pertains to the perfection of
virtue.
Reply to Objection 1: Man can avoid sin and do good, yet not
without God's help, according to Jn. 15:5: "Without Me you
can do nothing." Wherefore the fact that man needs God's help in
order to be continent, does not show incontinence to be no sin, for,
as stated in Ethic. iii, 3, "what we can do by means of a friend
we do, in a way, ourselves."
Reply to Objection 2: The judgment of reason is overcome in the
incontinent man, not necessarily, for then he would commit no sin,
but through a certain negligence on account of his not standing firm in
resisting the passion by holding to the judgment formed by his reason.
Reply to Objection 3: This argument takes incontinence
metaphorically and not properly.
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