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Objection 1: It would seem that there is but one Divine law.
Because, where there is one king in one kingdom there is but one law.
Now the whole of mankind is compared to God as to one king, according
to Ps. 46:8: "God is the King of all the earth." Therefore
there is but one Divine law.
Objection 2: Further, every law is directed to the end which the
lawgiver intends for those for whom he makes the law. But God intends
one and the same thing for all men; since according to 1 Tim.
2:4: "He will have all men to be saved, and to come to the
knowledge of the truth." Therefore there is but one Divine law.
Objection 3: Further, the Divine law seems to be more akin to the
eternal law, which is one, than the natural law, according as the
revelation of grace is of a higher order than natural knowledge.
Therefore much more is the Divine law but one.
On the contrary, The Apostle says (Heb. 7:12): "The
priesthood being translated, it is necessary that a translation also be
made of the law." But the priesthood is twofold, as stated in the
same passage, viz. the levitical priesthood, and the priesthood of
Christ. Therefore the Divine law is twofold, namely the Old Law
and the New Law.
I answer that, As stated in the FP, Question 30, Article 3,
distinction is the cause of number. Now things may be distinguished in
two ways. First, as those things that are altogether specifically
different, e.g. a horse and an ox. Secondly, as perfect and
imperfect in the same species, e.g. a boy and a man: and in this way
the Divine law is divided into Old and New. Hence the Apostle
(Gal. 3:24,25) compares the state of man under the Old Law
to that of a child "under a pedagogue"; but the state under the New
Law, to that of a full grown man, who is "no longer under a
pedagogue."
Now the perfection and imperfection of these two laws is to be taken in
connection with the three conditions pertaining to law, as stated
above. For, in the first place, it belongs to law to be directed to
the common good as to its end, as stated above (Question 90,
Article 2). This good may be twofold. It may be a sensible and
earthly good; and to this, man was directly ordained by the Old
Law: wherefore, at the very outset of the law, the people were
invited to the earthly kingdom of the Chananaeans (Ex.
3:8,17). Again it may be an intelligible and heavenly good:
and to this, man is ordained by the New Law. Wherefore, at the
very beginning of His preaching, Christ invited men to the kingdom of
heaven, saying (Mt. 4:17): "Do penance, for the kingdom of
heaven is at hand." Hence Augustine says (Contra Faust. iv)
that "promises of temporal goods are contained in the Old Testament,
for which reason it is called old; but the promise of eternal life
belongs to the New Testament."
Secondly, it belongs to the law to direct human acts according to the
order of righteousness (Article 4): wherein also the New Law
surpasses the Old Law, since it directs our internal acts, according
to Mt. 5:20: "Unless your justice abound more than that of the
Scribes and Pharisees, you shall not enter into the kingdom of
heaven." Hence the saying that "the Old Law restrains the hand,
but the New Law controls the mind" ( Sentent. iii, D, xl).
Thirdly, it belongs to the law to induce men to observe its
commandments. This the Old Law did by the fear of punishment: but
the New Law, by love, which is poured into our hearts by the grace
of Christ, bestowed in the New Law, but foreshadowed in the Old.
Hence Augustine says (Contra Adimant. Manich. discip. xvii)
that "there is little difference between the Law and the
Gospel---fear and love."
Reply to Objection 1: As the father of a family issues different
commands to the children and to the adults, so also the one King,
God, in His one kingdom, gave one law to men, while they were yet
imperfect, and another more perfect law, when, by the preceding law,
they had been led to a greater capacity for Divine things.
Reply to Objection 2: The salvation of man could not be achieved
otherwise than through Christ, according to Acts 4:12: "There
is no other name . . . given to men, whereby we must be saved."
Consequently the law that brings all to salvation could not be given
until after the coming of Christ. But before His coming it was
necessary to give to the people, of whom Christ was to be born, a law
containing certain rudiments of righteousness unto salvation, in order
to prepare them to receive Him.
Reply to Objection 3: The natural law directs man by way of certain
general precepts, common to both the perfect and the imperfect:
wherefore it is one and the same for all. But the Divine law directs
man also in certain particular matters, to which the perfect and
imperfect do not stand in the same relation. Hence the necessity for
the Divine law to be twofold, as already explained.
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