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Objection 1: It would seem that it was unfitting for the Mother of
God to go to the Temple to be purified. For purification presupposes
uncleanness. But there was no uncleanness in the Blessed Virgin, as
stated above (Questions 27,28). Therefore she should not have
gone to the Temple to be purified.
Objection 2: Further, it is written (Lev. 12:2-4): "If
a woman, having received seed, shall bear a man-child, she shall be
unclean seven days"; and consequently she is forbidden "to enter into
the sanctuary until the days of her purification be fulfilled." But
the Blessed Virgin brought forth a male child without receiving the
seed of man. Therefore she had no need to come to the Temple to be
purified.
Objection 3: Further, purification from uncleanness is accomplished
by grace alone. But the sacraments of the Old Law did not confer
grace; rather, indeed, did she have the very Author of grace with
her. Therefore it was not fitting that the Blessed Virgin should
come to the Temple to be purified.
On the contrary is the authority of Scripture, where it is stated
(Lk. 2:22) that "the days of" Mary's "purification were
accomplished according to the law of Moses."
I answer that, As the fulness of grace flowed from Christ on to His
Mother, so it was becoming that the mother should be like her Son in
humility: for "God giveth grace to the humble," as is written
James 4:6. And therefore, just as Christ, though not subject to
the Law, wished, nevertheless, to submit to circumcision and the
other burdens of the Law, in order to give an example of humility and
obedience; and in order to show His approval of the Law; and,
again, in order to take away from the Jews an excuse for calumniating
Him: for the same reasons He wished His Mother also to fulfil the
prescriptions of the Law, to which, nevertheless, she was not
subject.
Reply to Objection 1: Although the Blessed Virgin had no
uncleanness, yet she wished to fulfil the observance of purification,
not because she needed it, but on account of the precept of the Law.
Thus the Evangelist says pointedly that the days of her purification
"according to the Law" were accomplished; for she needed no
purification in herself.
Reply to Objection 2: Moses seems to have chosen his words in order
to exclude uncleanness from the Mother of God, who was with child
"without receiving seed." It is therefore clear that she was not
bound to fulfil that precept, but fulfilled the observance of
purification of her own accord, as stated above.
Reply to Objection 3: The sacraments of the Law did not cleanse
from the uncleanness of sin which is accomplished by grace, but they
foreshadowed this purification: for they cleansed by a kind of carnal
purification, from the uncleanness of a certain irregularity, as
stated in the FS, Question 102, Article 5; FS, Question
103, Article 2. But the Blessed Virgin contracted neither
uncleanness, and consequently did not need to be purified.
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