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Objection 1: It seems that God need not be obeyed in all things.
For it is written (Mt. 9:30,31) that our Lord after healing
the two blind men commanded them, saying: "See that no man know
this. But they going out spread His fame abroad in all that
country." Yet they are not blamed for so doing. Therefore it seems
that we are not bound to obey God in all things.
Objection 2: Further, no one is bound to do anything contrary to
virtue. Now we find that God commanded certain things contrary to
virtue: thus He commanded Abraham to slay his innocent son (Gn.
22); and the Jews to steal the property of the Egyptians (Ex.
11), which things are contrary to justice; and Osee to take to
himself a woman who was an adulteress (Osee 3), and this is
contrary to chastity. Therefore God is not to be obeyed in all
things.
Objection 3: Further, whoever obeys God conforms his will to the
divine will even as to the thing willed. But we are not bound in all
things to conform our will to the divine will as to the thing willed,
as stated above (FS, Question 19, Article 10). Therefore
man is not bound to obey God in all things.
On the contrary, It is written (Ex. 24:7): "All things
that the Lord hath spoken we will do, and we will be obedient."
I answer that, As stated above (Article 1), he who obeys is
moved by the command of the person he obeys, just as natural things are
moved by their motive causes. Now just a God is the first mover of
all things that are moved naturally, so too is He the first mover of
all wills, as shown above (FS, Question 9, Article 6).
Therefore just as all natural things are subject to the divine motion
by a natural necessity so too all wills, by a kind of necessity of
justice, are bound to obey the divine command.
Reply to Objection 1: Our Lord in telling the blind men to conceal
the miracle had no intention of binding them with the force of a divine
precept, but, as Gregory says (Moral. xix), "gave an example to
His servants who follow Him that they might wish to hide their virtue
and yet that it should be proclaimed against their will, in order that
others might profit by their example."
Reply to Objection 2: Even as God does nothing contrary to nature
(since "the nature of a thing is what God does therein," according
to a gloss on Rm. 11), and yet does certain things contrary to the
wonted course of nature; so to God can command nothing contrary to
virtue since virtue and rectitude of human will consist chiefly in
conformity with God's will and obedience to His command, although it
be contrary to the wonted mode of virtue. Accordingly, then, the
command given to Abraham to slay his innocent son was not contrary to
justice, since God is the author of life an death. Nor again was it
contrary to justice that He commanded the Jews to take things
belonging to the Egyptians, because all things are His, and He
gives them to whom He will. Nor was it contrary to chastity that
Osee was commanded to take an adulteress, because God Himself is the
ordainer of human generation, and the right manner of intercourse with
woman is that which He appoints. Hence it is evident that the persons
aforesaid did not sin, either by obeying God or by willing to obey
Him.
Reply to Objection 3: Though man is not always bound to will what
God wills, yet he is always bound to will what God wills him to
will. This comes to man's knowledge chiefly through God's command,
wherefore man is bound to obey God's commands in all things.
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